As bad as this kind of subjectivism run amok may be, the rigid objectivism of modernity that created it isn't any better.
It can't be denied that some things can have more than one interpretation (one thinks of a work of art that can genuinely have different meanings for different people). But does this fact necessarily commit us to the assumption that everything can have an infinite number of interpretations? And more importantly, can they all be right?
I'd like to suggest that the only thing this fact commits us to believing is, well, exactly what it says. Some things can have more than one interpretation. But notice that even if something can have more than one meaning, the implication is that all of its meanings must still be right or true meanings. The logical leap comes when we assume that all potential meanings must be right ones. I see no reason to assume that.
Instead, we should adopt a position I'll call "multi-objectivsim." The sort of rigid objectivism of modernity leaves no room for legitimate cases of multiple meaning, and the subjectivism of postmodernity throws out objective meaning altogether. So we might think of this as a more realistic middle ground.
Just in case you still aren't sold on the idea that one thing (whether art or literature) can have more than one legitimate meaning, consider the following example from the Old Testament.
Isaiah 7:14 - Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
In the time of Isaiah this verse had a specific meaning. The child being referred to here is Isaiah's own child. And the child's birth was a sign to Ahaz, King of Judah, that God would bring judgment upon him for refusing to trust in the Lord. Now fast forward to the New Testament. Matthew sites this verse in Isaiah as being fulfilled in the Virgin birth of Christ (Matt. 1: 22-23). Well, which is it? Does this verse refer to Isaiah's child or to Christ?
The obvious answer is that both interpretations are equally true. But are we now free to assume that there are probably an infinite number of equally true meanings that we can ascribe to this verse (and every other verse in Scripture) as we see fit? Not at all. As before, this would require us to make a leap that we are not warranted in making. Rather, we can affirm a multi-objectivism. There is certainly more than one true meaning, but each meaning is still objectively true.



